The nurse is reviewing a client’s ECG and assessing the T wave. Which of the following statements about the T wave are correct? (Select all that apply.)

The T wave normally follows the QRS complex

It represents ventricular repolarization

It indicates atrial depolarization

It is a large downward deflection

It is normally a small upward sloping curve

A nurse is interpreting the S wave on an ECG strip. Which of the following statements accurately describe the S wave?

It is a downward deflection immediately after the R wave

It is part of the ventricular conduction system

It may not be visible in every QRS complex

It is always present in every ECG lead

It occurs after the P wave and before the T wave

The nurse is assessing the PR interval on a client’s ECG. Which of the following are true regarding the PR interval?

It represents the beginning of atrial depolarization

It includes the P wave and baseline leading up to the QRS

It should measure 3 to 5 small boxes

It should remain consistent from beat to beat

It should be 0.20 to 0.40 seconds in duration

The nurse is evaluating a client’s ECG and observes the QRS complex. Which of the following statements are accurate about the QRS complex?

It includes the Q, R, and S waves

It should be 1.5 to less than 3 small boxes

It represents ventricular depolarization and contraction

It should be wider than 0.12 seconds

A nurse is reviewing a client's ECG strip and assessing the P wave. Which of the following describe normal characteristics of the P wave?

It is usually an upward small curve

It represents atrial depolarization and contraction

It occurs after each QRS complex

It reflects ventricular repolarization

Which of the following are characteristics of normal sinus rhythm in a stable client?

The client is alert and oriented

There is no chest pain or pressure

All 5 ECG steps are within normal limits

The client has frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)

A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for an electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG). Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for performing an EKG?

To evaluate cardiac function in clients with chest pain or electrolyte imbalances

To measure blood oxygen levels during physical activity

To determine lung expansion and airway resistance

To assess brain activity after a seizure

A nurse suspects a client may be experiencing complete heart block. Which of the following clinical findings would support this diagnosis?

No association between P waves and QRS complexes on ECG

Fast, regular pulse and bounding pulses

Narrow QRS complex with regular rhythm

Irregular rhythm with visible flutter waves

Which of the following best describes the effect of the parasympathetic nervous system on the heart?

Increases heart rate and blood pressure

Has no effect on cardiac function

Causes ventricular fibrillation

A nurse is assessing a client for signs of decreased cardiac output . Which of the following findings would indicate this condition?

Warm, flushed skin and bounding pulses

A nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of a pulmonary embolism the nurse should watch for?

Anxiety, pink frothy sputum, sharp chest pain worse with deep breathing, and dyspnea

Productive cough, orthopnea, and rales

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of complete heart block (third-degree AV block) ?

Syncope and slow ventricular rate

Bounding pulses and tachycardia

Sudden chest pain and diaphoresis

What does automaticity refer to in relation to the heart’s electrical conduction system?

The heart’s ability to create its own electrical impulse

The heart’s ability to contract in sync with the lungs

The heart’s ability to respond to pain stimuli

The heart’s ability to slow down when resting

What is the primary health risk associated with atrial fibrillation?

Thrombus formation and embolization

A nurse observes an abnormal heart rhythm on a patient’s cardiac monitor. What is the priority action ?

Assess the patient for signs of decompensation

Administer antiarrhythmic medication

How is syncope best defined?

Temporary, sudden loss of consciousness due to a drop in brain blood flow

Slow heart rate with shortness of breath

Inability to speak clearly due to a cardiac event

Why is warfarin (Coumadin) prescribed for patients with atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter?

To prevent blood clots and reduce stroke risk

To improve ventricular contractions

What is the term for a rhythm with a heart rate greater than 160 bpm ?

SVT (Supraventricular Tachycardia)

exam 2 review

Authored by ariyana cummings

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

Atrial Fibrillation

Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)

Junctional Escape Rhythm

Accelerated Junctional Rhythm

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

Atrial Fibrillation

Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)

Sinus Bradycardia

Accelerated Junctional Rhythm

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

Atrial Fibrillation

Junctional Escape Rhythm

Sinus Bradycardia

Accelerated Junctional Rhythm

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

Atrial Fibrillation

Junctional Escape Rhythm

Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)

Accelerated Junctional Rhythm

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

Atrial Fibrillation

Junctional Escape Rhythm

Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)

Accelerated Junctional Rhythm

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