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Nephrology Quiz

Authored by Jeyagar ramesh

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Professional Development

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Nephrology Quiz
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15 questions

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1.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

A 34-year-old diabetic patient is admitted with febrile illness and a creatinine level of 5 mg/dL. His urine analysis shows 4+ proteinuria, with occasional red blood cells, and a urine protein-to-creatinine ratio (PCR) of 8 grams. The next day, his creatinine rises to 6.5 mg/dL. Based on this presentation, which of the following is most likely?

The patient has a rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) component.

The patient has rapidly progressive renal failure (RPRF).

The patient has both RPGN and RPRF.

None of the above.

Answer explanation

This patient demonstrates rapid worsening of kidney function, as shown by the rise in serum creatinine from 5 mg/dL to 6.5 mg/dL within 24 hours.

This fulfills the definition of rapidly progressive renal failure (RPRF).

However, the urinary findings do not strongly support glomerulonephritis.

Key concept

Rapidly Progressive Renal Failure (RPRF)

  • Refers to rapid deterioration of kidney function over days to weeks.

  • It describes the speed of renal decline, not the underlying pathology.

Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis (RPGN)

  • A specific severe form of glomerulonephritis.

  • Characterized by the triad:

1️⃣ Hematuria (often dysmorphic RBCs / RBC casts)
2️⃣ Proteinuria
3️⃣ Rapidly rising creatinine

Therefore:

  • All RPGN causes RPRF

  • But not all RPRF is RPGN


Why this case is NOT RPGN

Although the patient has severe proteinuria and rising creatinine, there is no convincing evidence of glomerular hematuria (only occasional RBCs without clear glomerular features).

Thus the presentation is better classified as RPRF rather than RPGN.

Possible causes include:

  • Acute tubular injury in sepsis

  • Acute on chronic diabetic kidney disease

  • Infection-related renal injury

2.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

What is the role of Lasix (furosemide) in the management of acute kidney injury (AKI)?

If the patient has developed fluid overload or pulmonary edema.

If the patient's urine output is oliguric to improve urine output.

For the prevention of AKI.

For all of the above.

Answer explanation

The correct answer is:

1. If the patient has developed fluid overload or pulmonary edema.

Lasix (furosemide) is a loop diuretic commonly used in acute kidney injury (AKI) for managing fluid overload or pulmonary edema, particularly when there is a need to reduce excess fluid that the kidneys are unable to excrete.

●     Option 2 is not entirely correct because while Lasix can increase urine output in cases of oliguric AKI, it does not necessarily improve renal function or recovery in AKI.

●     Option 3 is incorrect as Lasix is not used for preventing AKI.

●     Option 4 is not appropriate because Lasix is not used in all of these situations for AKI management.

 

3.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

In clinical medicine, what is considered most important for safe patient care?

Knowing what we don't know.

Trying to know what we don't know.

Recognizing that there are things we do not know

All of the above.

Answer explanation

Safe medical practice depends on intellectual humility and curiosity.

  • 1. Knowing what we don’t know helps us avoid dangerous assumptions.

  • 2.Trying to know what we don’t know drives learning, consultation, and investigation.

  • 3.Accepting that there are unknowns prevents overconfidence and improves patient safety.

In medicine, awareness of one’s limitations is as important as knowledge itself. This mindset encourages clinicians to seek help, review evidence, and continue learning, ultimately improving patient outcomes.

“The most dangerous doctor is the one who does not know what they do not know.” 🧠

4.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

A 45-year-old male patient is admitted with a 3-day history of fever, severe cough, and pleuritic chest pain. On examination, right lower zone (RLZ) bronchial breathing (BB) and crepitations are noted. A chest X-ray shows RLZ consolidation. He is started on IV Augmentin and clarithromycin. What is the appropriate term for this antibiotic treatment?

Appropriate Antibiotic

Empirical Antibiotic

Rationalized Antibiotic

All of the above

Answer explanation

Correct Answer:
2. Empirical Antibiotic

Explanation:
At the time antibiotics are started, the causative organism is not yet identified. Therefore, treatment is started based on the most likely pathogens and clinical guidelines, which is called empirical therapy.

However, an important problem in clinical practice is that:

  • Empirical antibiotics are often continued without reviewing culture results.

  • Starting a broad-spectrum empirical antibiotic does NOT automatically mean it is the appropriate antibiotic.

Once culture and sensitivity results become available, the antibiotics should be reviewed and de-escalated (rationalized) to the most appropriate targeted therapy.


Empirical antibiotics start the treatment —
Culture results should guide the final treatment.

“Start empirical, but always rationalize.”

5.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

When referring a patient to cardiology, we usually have at least an ECG and Troponin I, and for respiratory referrals, a CXR. Likewise, when referring a patient to a nephrologist or the renal team, what are the basic requirements that should be fulfilled?

Urine full report

Ultrasound scan

You do not need anything

A minimum of both these investigations

6.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

When working in a resource-limited healthcare setting, what strategy helps reduce unnecessary workload while improving the efficiency of patient care?

Early identification of patients with very poor prognosis and considering a conservative / non-escalation care pathway

Continue aggressive treatment for all patients regardless of prognosis

Focus only on improving resources before making management decisions

Ignore prognosis when deciding treatment

Answer explanation

Media Image

7.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

A middle-aged gentleman is admitted with severe septic shock. He is on inotropic support, but his blood pressure remains low at 70/50 mmHg. His creatinine is 12 mg/dL, he is anuric, his potassium is 4.5 mmol/L, and he has severe lactic acidosis. What would be your next appropriate course of action?

Ensure that his mean arterial blood pressure is optimized to perfuse the kidneys

Contact the renal team for urgent dialysis

Administer more fluids

Consider other supportive measures

Answer explanation

Media Image

Correct Answer: A. Ensure that the mean arterial pressure is optimized to maintain organ perfusion


Explanation

The patient is in severe septic shock with profound hypotension (70/50 mmHg).

At this stage, the immediate priority is restoration of adequate organ perfusion, especially maintaining a mean arterial pressure (MAP ≥ 65 mmHg).

Although the patient has:

  • Very high creatinine (12 mg/dL)

  • Anuria

  • Metabolic acidosis

Dialysis cannot be effectively performed in a patient with severe hemodynamic instability unless perfusion is stabilized first.

Therefore the priority is to:

  • Optimize MAP with vasopressors and resuscitation

  • Restore organ perfusion

  • Then consider renal replacement therapy if indicated

In shock, perfusion comes before dialysis.
Without circulation, dialysis cannot save the kidneys.

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