ELA 12 REVIEW

If “emoji” now performs some of the same roles as words, does Functional Theory suggest emojis are part of the English language? Why or why not?

Consider how English varieties differ globally (e.g., “chips” UK vs. “chips” US). How does cultural transmission explain these differences?

Can cultural transmission also explain why archaisms survive in some contexts (e.g., biblical language, Shakespearean plays)?

Can cultural transmission also explain why archaisms survive in some contexts (e.g., biblical language, Shakespearean plays)?

If language is random, why do some “errors” stabilize into permanent features (e.g., pea from pease)?

How might substratum theory explain the persistence of regional dialect words despite national standardization?

How does Substratum Theory help explain the ongoing influence of immigrant communities on English in multicultural cities?

Can lexical gaps explain the rise of gender-neutral pronouns (e.g., they as singular)?

Do you think all lexical gaps need to be filled? Why do some remain empty (e.g., no opposite of “uncle” OR “aunt”)?

Is the S-curve model too linear? What about language changes that never “catch on”?