Quiz about MEDL 279 Immunology Review

Question 1

Which of the following is a characteristic of immunogens that affect immunogenicity?

Accepted Answer

High complexity

Answer

Small molecule (<10KDa)

Answer

Low complexity

Answer

Lack of foreignness

Question 2

Fill in the blank: Proteins and ________ are better chemical compositions for immunogenicity.

Accepted Answer

polysaccharides

Answer

lipids

Answer

nucleic acids

Answer

vitamins

Question 3

Which type of immunity involves the individual producing their own antibody?

Accepted Answer

Active immunity

Answer

Passive immunity

Answer

Innate immunity

Answer

Artificial immunity

Question 4

Passive immunity is characterized by which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Antibody transferred to the person

Answer

Individual produces antibody

Answer

Follows immunization or infection

Answer

Memory (lasting)

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT a feature of natural (innate) immunity?

Accepted Answer

B) Memory

Answer

A) Non-specific

Answer

C) Skin, stomach acid, etc.

Answer

D) No memory

Question 6

Adaptive (acquired) immunity is characterized by which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Specific

Answer

Non-specific

Answer

No memory

Answer

No T-cells or B-cells

Question 7

Fill in the blank: Cellular adaptive immunity involves ________ and lymphokines.

Accepted Answer

T-cells

Answer

B-cells

Answer

Macrophages

Answer

Neutrophils

Question 8

Which cell type is primarily responsible for antibody production in humoral immunity?

Accepted Answer

B-cell (plasma cell)

Answer

T-cell

Answer

Macrophage

Answer

Neutrophil

Question 9

Which type of immunity provides primary defense against viral/fungal infections?

Accepted Answer

Cellular

Answer

Humoral

Answer

Passive

Answer

Natural

Question 10

Which class of immunoglobulin has the greatest concentration in serum?

Accepted Answer

IgG

Answer

IgA

Answer

IgM

Answer

IgE

Question 11

Which immunoglobulin is the largest antibody and is seen in early immune response?

Accepted Answer

IgM

Answer

IgG

Answer

IgA

Answer

IgE

Question 12

Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?

Accepted Answer

IgG

Answer

IgA

Answer

IgM

Answer

IgE

Question 13

Which immunoglobulin is primarily present in secretions and acts as a primary defense against infections of the mucosal regions?

Accepted Answer

IgA

Answer

IgG

Answer

IgM

Answer

IgE

Question 14

Which immunoglobulin is associated with allergies and triggers the release of histamines from mast cells?

Accepted Answer

IgE

Answer

IgG

Answer

IgA

Answer

IgM

Question 15

Which immunoglobulin has a function that is currently unknown and is present on the B-cell surface?

Accepted Answer

IgD

Answer

IgG

Answer

IgA

Answer

IgM

Question 16

Which immunoglobulin is the first to respond in an immune response (1-2 weeks)?

Accepted Answer

IgM

Answer

IgG

Answer

IgA

Answer

IgE

Question 17

Which immunoglobulin is responsible for the secondary immune response (2+ weeks)?

Accepted Answer

IgG

Answer

IgM

Answer

IgA

Answer

IgE

Question 18

What is the normal T-cell: B-cell ratio?

Accepted Answer

8:1

Answer

1:1

Answer

2:1

Answer

20:1

Question 19

What is the normal T-helper: T-suppressor ratio?

Accepted Answer

2:1

Answer

1:2

Answer

1:1

Answer

3:1

Question 20

In AIDS patients, what is the T-helper: T-suppressor ratio?

Accepted Answer

1:2

Answer

2:1

Answer

1:1

Answer

3:1

Question 21

Which of the following is NOT a function of IgG?

Accepted Answer

Largest antibody

Answer

Greatest concentration in serum

Answer

Activates complement

Answer

Crosses placenta

Question 22

Which of the following is a function of the complement system?

Accepted Answer

All of the above

Answer

Activates phagocytosis (chemotaxis)

Answer

Lyses target cell (foreign organism)

Answer

Opsonization (enhances phagocytic binding)

Question 23

How many chemically distinct proteins are present in the complement system?

Accepted Answer

21

Answer

12

Answer

30

Answer

15

Question 24

Which immunoglobulins activate the classical complement pathway?

Accepted Answer

IgG & IgM

Answer

IgA & IgE

Answer

IgD & IgE

Answer

IgM & IgA

Question 25

The alternative complement pathway is activated by ________.

Accepted Answer

lipopolysaccharides, polysaccharides

Answer

proteins, nucleic acids

Answer

fatty acids, amino acids

Answer

glycoproteins, glycolipids

Question 26

Which of the following is NOT a control protein in the complement system?

Accepted Answer

Albumin

Answer

C1 esterase inhibitor

Answer

C4 binding protein

Answer

Factor I

Question 27

Type I hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which immunoglobulin?

Accepted Answer

IgE

Answer

IgA

Answer

IgG

Answer

IgM

Question 28

Which of the following is an example of a Type II (antibody dependent) hypersensitivity reaction?

Accepted Answer

Transfusion reactions

Answer

Bee sting

Answer

Hay fever

Answer

Serum sickness

Question 29

Type III hypersensitivity reaction involves the formation of ________.

Accepted Answer

large immune complexes

Answer

antibodies against self-antigens

Answer

cytotoxic T cells

Answer

mast cell degranulation

Question 30

What is the primary use of RIST in serologic testing?

Accepted Answer

Quantifying total serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) levels

Answer

Detecting allergens specific to immunoglobulin E (IgE)

Answer

Detecting contact dermatitis

Answer

Measuring T cell release

Question 31

RAST is an allergy test that detects allergens specific to which immunoglobulin?

Accepted Answer

IgE

Answer

IgA

Answer

IgG

Answer

IgM

Question 32

Fill in the blank: The principle of antigen-antibody reactions in serologic testing involves soluble antigen and antibody in proper concentrations leading to _________

Accepted Answer

visible precipitate

Answer

color change

Answer

gas formation

Answer

temperature increase

Question 33

Which of the following is an example of a precipitation reaction in serologic testing?

Accepted Answer

Double diffusion (Ouchterlony)

Answer

Direct agglutination

Answer

Passive latex agglutination

Answer

Agglutination inhibition

Question 34

What is the principle of agglutination in serologic testing?

Accepted Answer

Particulate antigen + antibody > clumping

Answer

Soluble antigen + antibody > visible precipitate

Answer

Antigen excess

Answer

Antibody excess

Question 35

Name one example of passive agglutination.

Accepted Answer

Passive hemagglutination or Passive latex agglutination

Answer

Direct Coombs test

Answer

Blood typing (ABO)

Answer

Bacterial slide agglutination

Question 36

In agglutination inhibition, what does a positive test (no agglutination) indicate?

Accepted Answer

The patient has the antigen for which you are testing

Answer

The patient does not have the antigen

Answer

The reagent antibody is not bound in the first step

Answer

The indicator reacts with the antigen

Question 37

Explain the difference between prozone and postzone in precipitation reactions.

Accepted Answer

Prozone is due to antibody excess, while postzone is due to antigen excess.

Answer

Prozone is due to antigen excess, while postzone is due to antibody excess.

Answer

Both prozone and postzone are due to equal concentrations of antigen and antibody.

Answer

Prozone and postzone both occur due to lack of antigen.

Question 38

What is indicated by a positive test in Complement Fixation?

Accepted Answer

No hemolysis occurs

Answer

Hemolysis occurs

Answer

Antibody is not present

Answer

Serum is not heat inactivated

Question 39

Fill in the blank: In Complement Fixation, if complement is fixed in the first step, it will not be available to combine with the indicator, resulting in _________

Accepted Answer

no hemolysis

Answer

complete hemolysis

Answer

partial hemolysis

Answer

increased agglutination

Question 40

Which of the following is a limitation of Complement Fixation?

Accepted Answer

Serum must be heat inactivated

Answer

Can be used for all antibody types

Answer

Does not require standardization

Answer

Can use fresh serum only

Question 41

Radial Immunodiffusion (RID) is also called:

Accepted Answer

Single immunodiffusion

Answer

Double immunodiffusion

Answer

Complement fixation

Answer

Hemagglutination

Question 42

Fill in the blank: In Radial Immunodiffusion (RID), the diameter of the ______ is measured to determine the result.

Accepted Answer

ring

Answer

well

Answer

slide

Answer

tube

Question 43

Which technique is used to determine relationships between antigens and antibodies and results in a visible band of precipitation?

Accepted Answer

Double Diffusion (Ouchterlony)

Answer

Complement Fixation

Answer

Radial Immunodiffusion

Answer

Hemagglutination

Question 44

What two techniques are combined in immunoelectrophoresis?

Accepted Answer

Gel diffusion and electrophoresis

Answer

Centrifugation and chromatography

Answer

Precipitation and filtration

Answer

Dialysis and ultracentrifugation

Question 45

Which of the following is most commonly used to determine heavy and light chains involved in monoclonal gammopathies?

Accepted Answer

Immunoelectrophoresis

Answer

Immunofixation

Answer

Radioimmunoassay

Answer

ELISA

Question 46

In immunoelectrophoresis, what does the appearance of a precipitation arch in the equivalence zone indicate?

Accepted Answer

Antigen and antibody have diffused and formed a complex.

Answer

Only antigen is present in the zone.

Answer

Antibody is absent in the zone.

Answer

No reaction has occurred between antigen and antibody.

Question 47

Immunofixation combines which two techniques?

Accepted Answer

Protein electrophoresis and immunoprecipitation

Answer

Western blotting and ELISA

Answer

Chromatography and mass spectrometry

Answer

Agglutination and flow cytometry

Question 48

Which method is described as highly sensitive and easy to read, and is used to classify monoclonal gammopathies?

Accepted Answer

Immunofixation

Answer

Immunoelectrophoresis

Answer

Radioimmunoassay

Answer

ELISA

Question 49

In a competitive binding assay in RIA, what does a lower radioactive count indicate?

Accepted Answer

A higher concentration of unlabeled antigen

Answer

A lower concentration of unlabeled antigen

Answer

A higher concentration of labeled antigen

Answer

No change in antigen concentration

Question 50

Which test is used to measure total IgE in radioimmunoassay?

Accepted Answer

RIST

Answer

ELISA

Answer

Western blot

Answer

PCR

Question 51

What technique is used in Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA/ELISA)?

Accepted Answer

Sandwich technique

Answer

Precipitation technique

Answer

Agglutination technique

Answer

Radioactive labeling technique

Question 52

Which of the following is an example of a test that uses the ELISA method?

Accepted Answer

HIV testing

Answer

ANA testing

Answer

Complement component concentration

Answer

FTA-Abs for T. pallidum

Question 53

In nephelometry, what is the relationship between the amount of scattered (reflected) light and the number of insoluble complexes?

Accepted Answer

Directly proportional

Answer

Inversely proportional

Answer

No relationship

Answer

Exponentially proportional

Question 54

Fill in the blank: In immunofluorescence, the direct method involves adding _______ labeled antibody to patient tissue, washing, and examining under a fluorescent microscope.

Accepted Answer

fluorescein

Answer

alkaline phosphatase

Answer

biotin

Answer

peroxidase

Question 55

Which of the following is an example of indirect immunofluorescence?

Accepted Answer

ANA testing

Answer

HIV testing

Answer

Serum HCG

Answer

Antibody concentration

Question 56

What must be observed in serial dilutions for the result to be clinically significant?

Accepted Answer

A 4-fold increase or 2-tube rise in titer must be seen.

Answer

A 2-fold decrease in titer must be seen.

Answer

No change in titer is necessary.

Answer

A single positive result is sufficient.

Question 57

This is the probability of a positive test result, with the patient exhibiting a true positive.

Accepted Answer

Sensitivity

Answer

Accuracy

Answer

Precision

Answer

Reliability

Question 58

Which of the following is NOT an example of a test that uses nephelometry?

Accepted Answer

Serum HCG

Answer

Complement component concentration

Answer

Antibody concentration

Answer

None of the above

Question 59

What is analytical sensitivity?

Accepted Answer

Ability of a test to detect very small amounts of a substance.

Answer

Ability of a test to distinguish between two similar substances.

Answer

Ability of a test to produce the same result repeatedly.

Answer

Ability of a test to identify the cause of a disease.

Question 60

What is clinical sensitivity?

Accepted Answer

Ability of a test to give positive results if patient has the disease (no false negatives).

Answer

Ability of a test to give negative results if patient has the disease (no false positives).

Answer

Ability of a test to give positive results if patient does not have the disease.

Answer

Ability of a test to give negative results if patient does not have the disease.

Question 61

What is analytical specificity?

Accepted Answer

Ability of a test to detect substance without interference from cross-reacting substances.

Answer

Ability of a test to measure the smallest amount of substance.

Answer

Ability of a test to produce the same result repeatedly.

Answer

Ability of a test to detect all possible substances present.

Question 62

What is clinical specificity?

Accepted Answer

Ability of test to give negative result if patient does not have disease (no false positives).

Answer

Ability of test to give positive result if patient has disease (no false negatives).

Answer

Ability of test to detect all cases of a disease, including mild ones.

Answer

Ability of test to predict the severity of a disease.

Question 63

What organism causes syphilis?

Accepted Answer

T. pallidum

Answer

E. coli

Answer

S. aureus

Answer

N. gonorrhoeae

Question 64

Which test is used to visualize motile organisms from primary and secondary lesions in syphilis?

Accepted Answer

Darkfield microscopy

Answer

Gram staining

Answer

Ziehl-Neelsen staining

Answer

ELISA

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