Quiz about qatar set 2

Question 1

124. What pressure is defined as QFE?

Accepted Answer

The pressure at field elevation.

Answer

The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures.

Answer

The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures.

Answer

The pressure of the altimeter.

Question 2

126. With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?

Accepted Answer

Cumulonimbus.

Answer

Stratocumulus.

Answer

Nimbostratus.

Answer

Stratus.

Question 3

128. What does the term SIGMET signify?

Accepted Answer

A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions.

Answer

A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report.

Answer

A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half hourly intervals.

Answer

A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.

Question 4

130. Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere?

Accepted Answer

At MSL temperature is 15 0 C and pressure is 1013.25 hpa.

Answer

At MSL temperature is 15 0 C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1 0 C per 100m.

Answer

At MSL temperature is 10 0 C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1 0 C per 100m.

Answer

At MSL pressure is 1013.25 hpa and the decrease of temperature with height is 1 0 C per 100m.

Question 5

133. The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the:

Accepted Answer

Depth of standing water on the runway.

Answer

Aircraft weight.

Answer

Strength of the headwind.

Answer

Amount of lift off speed.

Question 6

134. In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:

Accepted Answer

Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.

Answer

Surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.

Answer

It is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.

Answer

It is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.

Question 7

135. If airworthiness documents do not shown any additional correction factor for landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be increased by:

Accepted Answer

15%.

Answer

10%.

Answer

5%.

Answer

20%.

Question 8

136. Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take off:

Accepted Answer

Separate on each side of the runway.

Answer

Separate to the left side.

Answer

Stagnate on the runway.

Answer

Separate to the right side.

Question 9

137. When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the later shall be located, for a twin-engine aircraft, at an equivalent distance not exceeding:

Accepted Answer

1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine.

Answer

1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines.

Answer

2 hours of flight at cruising speed single engine.

Answer

2 hours of flight at cruising speed single engine.

Question 10

139. The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:

Accepted Answer

24 hours.

Answer

3 hours.

Answer

12 hours.

Answer

6 hours.

Question 11

140. Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear?

Accepted Answer

Indicated airspeed.

Answer

Pitch angle.

Answer

Vertical speed.

Answer

Groundspeed.

Question 12

141. Flight crewmembers on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

Accepted Answer

While at their station.

Answer

From take off to landing.

Answer

Only during take off and landing.

Answer

Only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety.

Question 13

142. An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft. What is the initial action by the operating crew?

Accepted Answer

To put on oxygen masks.

Answer

Transmit a MAYDAY message.

Answer

Place the seat belts sign to ON.

Answer

Disconnect the autopilot.

Question 14

143. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

Accepted Answer

550 m.

Answer

500 m.

Answer

350 m.

Answer

800 m.

Question 15

144. A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

Accepted Answer

75 m.

Answer

150 m.

Answer

250 m.

Answer

200 m.

Question 16

145. A category III a precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach, which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

Accepted Answer

200 m.

Answer

100 m.

Answer

250 m.

Answer

50 m.

Question 17

146. A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:

Accepted Answer

Poor.

Answer

Unreliable.

Answer

Medium.

Answer

Good.

Question 18

147. A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:

Accepted Answer

A decision height equal to at least 200 ft.

Answer

A decision height equal to at least 100 ft.

Answer

A decision height equal to at least 50 ft.

Answer

No decision height.

Question 19

148. A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:

Accepted Answer

A decision height of at least 100 ft.

Answer

A decision height of at least 200 ft.

Answer

A decision height of at least 50 ft.

Answer

No decision height.

Question 20

149. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit seeing an aircraft coming from the front right, will first see the:

Accepted Answer

Green steady light.

Answer

Green flashing light.

Answer

Red steady light.

Answer

White steady light.

Question 21

150. The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat). Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kts to 165 kts is:

Accepted Answer

C.

Answer

E.

Answer

D.

Answer

B.

Question 22

151. For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:

Accepted Answer

0.6 (1.67 x the actual landing distance).

Answer

0.5 (2 x the actual landing distance).

Answer

0.8 (1.25 x the actual landing distance).

Answer

0.7 (1.42 x the actual landing distance).

Question 23

152. An airplane creates a wake turbulence when:

Accepted Answer

Generating lift.

Answer

Flying at high speed.

Answer

Using a high engine R.P.M.

Answer

Flying with its gear and flaps extended.

Question 24

153. Wake turbulence risk is highest:

Accepted Answer

When a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind.

Answer

When a preceding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.

Answer

If, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy crosswind.

Answer

Following a preceding aircraft at high speed.

Question 25

154. The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a:

Accepted Answer

High weight and low speed.

Answer

High weight and high speed.

Answer

Low weight and low speed.

Answer

Low weight and high speed.

Question 26

155. Tip vortices, which are responsible for wake turbulence, appear as soon as the following is established:

Accepted Answer

Lift.

Answer

Spin up.

Answer

Lift destruction.

Answer

Drag.

Question 27

156. The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:

Accepted Answer

Large, heavy at low speed in clean configuration.

Answer

Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration.

Answer

Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration.

Answer

Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration.

Question 28

157. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?

Accepted Answer

7.4 km (4 nm).

Answer

3.7 km (2 nm).

Answer

9.3 km (5 nm).

Answer

11.1 km (6 nm).

Question 29

158. When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be:

Accepted Answer

3 min.

Answer

1 min.

Answer

2 min.

Answer

4 min.

Question 30

159. DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:

Accepted Answer

136,000 kg or more.

Answer

126,000 kg or more.

Answer

Less than 136,000 kg but more than 126,000 kg.

Answer

146,000 kg or more.

Question 31

According DOC 4444 (ICAO), wake turbulence no radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:

Accepted Answer

MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760m.

Answer

LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft.

Answer

MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft.

Answer

LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway.

Question 32

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), wake turbulence no radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:

Accepted Answer

LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway).

Answer

LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft.

Answer

LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway.

Answer

MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft.

Question 33

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), wake turbulence no radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied:

Accepted Answer

To LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel runway separated by less 760 m.

Answer

To a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold.

Answer

To an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross.

Answer

Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off.

Question 34

In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar separation minima of:

Accepted Answer

5 nm.

Answer

4 nm.

Answer

3 nm.

Answer

2 nm.

Question 35

For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway?

Accepted Answer

3 minutes.

Answer

4 minutes.

Answer

5 minutes.

Answer

2 minutes.

Question 36

For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136,000 kg and more than 7,000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?

Accepted Answer

9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes.

Answer

11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes.

Answer

7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes.

Answer

9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes.

Question 37

For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light aeroplane (7,000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136,000 kg but more than 7,000 kg) on the approach to landing?

Accepted Answer

3 minutes.

Answer

4 minutes.

Answer

5 minutes.

Answer

2 minutes.

Question 38

The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:

Accepted Answer

3 minutes.

Answer

10 minutes.

Answer

30 seconds.

Answer

1 minute.

Question 39

A class B fire is a fire of:

Accepted Answer

Liquid or liquefiable solid.

Answer

Electrical source fire.

Answer

Special fire: metal, gas, and chemical product.

Answer

Solid material usually of organic nature.

Question 40

The term decision height (DH) is used for:

Accepted Answer

A precision approach.

Answer

A conventional approach.

Answer

A conventional approach.

Answer

A conventional approach followed by a visual manoeuvre.

Question 41

On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engine aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying:

Accepted Answer

2 hours with normal cruise consumption.

Answer

30 minutes with normal cruise consumption.

Answer

2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft.

Answer

30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft.

Question 42

In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:

Accepted Answer

You descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.

Answer

You climb to the maximum flight level, which does not need the use of pressurization.

Answer

You go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach.

Answer

You carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety Altitude.

Question 43

During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be:

Accepted Answer

To put on the oxygen mask.

Answer

To warn the ATC.

Answer

To comfort your passengers.

Answer

To set the transponder to 7700.

Question 44

The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40,000 ft. is:

Accepted Answer

12 seconds.

Answer

1 minute.

Answer

5 minutes.

Answer

30 seconds.

Question 45

If the cabin pressure increases during level flight, the differential pressure:

Accepted Answer

Increases.

Answer

Remains constant.

Answer

Attains its maximum permitted operating limit.

Answer

Decreases.

Question 46

When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin, which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:

Accepted Answer

A rate of climb.

Answer

A rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure.

Answer

A rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm.

Answer

Zero.

Question 47

The accumulation of snow or ice an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:

Accepted Answer

Stalling speed.

Answer

Roll rate.

Answer

Value of the stall angle of attack.

Answer

Tuck under.

Question 48

If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:

Accepted Answer

Greater than the actual.

Answer

Less than the actual.

Answer

Equal to the actual.

Answer

Dependent on the temperature.

Question 49

The greatest possibility of ice build-up, while flying under icing conditions, occurs on:

Accepted Answer

The aircraft front areas.

Answer

The upper and lower wing surfaces.

Answer

The upper and lower rudder surfaces.

Answer

Only the pitot and static probes.

Question 50

For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest?

Accepted Answer

Freezing rain.

Answer

Steady snow.

Answer

Freezing fog.

Answer

Frost.

Question 51

During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:

Accepted Answer

The anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot.

Answer

The anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot.

Answer

The anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold.

Answer

The de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot.

Question 52

During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the hold over time starts:

Accepted Answer

At the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).

Answer

At the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).

Answer

At the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).

Answer

At the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).

Question 53

The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:

Accepted Answer

Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.

Answer

A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.

Answer

Burning cargo in a cargo aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide.

Answer

Water may only be used for minor fixes.

Question 54

In public transport, prior to take off in icing conditions, the captain must check that:

Accepted Answer

External surfaces are free from any ice accretion, which may impede the airplane performance and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight manual.

Answer

Possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits.

Answer

External surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5mm.

Answer

External surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid.

Question 55

A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have:

Accepted Answer

Reduced range.

Answer

Increased Mach number stability.

Answer

Increased manoeuvring limits.

Answer

Increased flight envelope.

Question 56

According to the JAR-OPS rules, the route of a twin-engine aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19 passengers must be planned in such a way that on one engine an appropriate aerodrome can be reached within:

Accepted Answer

60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

Answer

90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

Answer

120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

Answer

30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

Question 57

The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:

Accepted Answer

285 and 420.

Answer

280 and 400.

Answer

280 and 390.

Answer

275 and 400.

Question 58

At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region?

Accepted Answer

Between FL290 and FL410.

Answer

Below FL290.

Answer

Between FL275 and FL400.

Answer

Between FL245 and FL410.

Question 59

When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is:

Accepted Answer

300 m (1,000 ft.).

Answer

600 m (2,000 ft.).

Answer

450 m (1,500 ft.).

Answer

150 m (500 ft.).

Question 60

According to the recommended "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A" established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches:

Accepted Answer

1,000 ft.

Answer

3,000 ft.

Answer

2,000 ft.

Answer

1,500 ft.

Question 61

According with the "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B", as established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching:

Accepted Answer

1,000 ft.

Answer

1,500 ft.

Answer

3,000 ft.

Answer

500 ft.

Question 62

Wind shear is:

Accepted Answer

A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short distance.

Answer

A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance.

Answer

A horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance.

Answer

A vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance.

Question 63

An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kts while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:

Accepted Answer

80 kts.

Answer

40 kts.

Answer

60 kts.

Answer

20 kts.

Question 64

For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in:

Accepted Answer

90 seconds.

Answer

60 seconds.

Answer

132 seconds.

Answer

120 seconds.

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