Quiz about APES Practice MCQ EXAM

Question 1

1. "K" and "r" are used to describe which of the following aspects of populations?

Accepted Answer

(C) The reproductive tactics used by the populations

Answer

(A) The place in a habitat where these organisms live

Answer

(B) The number of males and females in the population

Answer

(D) The time it takes a population to double

Question 2

2. Which of the following best explains how clearcutting contributes to climate change on a global scale?

Accepted Answer

(C) Clearcutting involves the burning of cut trees, which releases the greenhouse gas carbon dioxide.

Answer

(A) Clearcutting requires prescribed burning or setting controlled forest fires to reduce the occurrence of natural fires.

Answer

(B) Clearcutting results in a loss of biodiversity and adds to the problems of endangered species and extinctions.

Answer

(D) Clearcutting removes plants and their root systems, leading to soil erosion and flooding.

Question 3

3. Which of the following does NOT result from the melting of polar icecaps?

Accepted Answer

(A) Increase in ocean acidification

Answer

(B) Loss of habitat for ice-dwelling species

Answer

(C) Release of the greenhouse gas methane

Answer

(D) Decrease in albedo causing more warming

Question 4

6. Which type of plate boundary typically results in mountain creation, island arcs, earthquakes, and/or volcanoes?

Accepted Answer

(A) Convergent boundary

Answer

(B) Divergent boundary

Answer

(C) Transform boundary

Answer

(D) Triple junction

Question 5

8. Which of the following factors limiting human population growth is density-independent?

Accepted Answer

(B) Natural disaster frequency

Answer

(A) Access to clean air and water

Answer

(C) Disease transmission

Answer

(D) Food availability

Question 6

9. Ozone depletion is occurring most rapidly in the Earth's polar regions because

Accepted Answer

(B) large amounts of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) can accumulate on ice crystals formed in the cold atmosphere

Answer

(A) the atmosphere is thicker at the poles, so ozone destruction is easier to observe

Answer

(C) the upper atmosphere winds form a pattern of high- and low-pressure systems that can cause the destruction of ozone

Answer

(D) the solar UV radiation is stronger at the poles, promoting the breakdown of ozone

Question 7

11. Which of the following does NOT help explain the relationship between temperature, precipitation, and biome shown in the graph?

Accepted Answer

(D) There are temperature extremes in which even the hardiest species cannot grow.

Answer

(A) Some vegetation types thrive only in very wet conditions.

Answer

(B) The coldest and hottest temperatures both restrict plant life.

Answer

(C) Drier regions cannot support as great a variety of vegetation as wetter ones can.

Question 8

13. The table below shows the four categories of ecosystem services. Based on the information in the table, which of the following gives an example of the possible human consequences of the disruption of a provisioning service?

Accepted Answer

(B) Rainforest destruction resulting in the loss of potential medicinal plant species

Answer

(A) Agricultural use of former parklands resulting in fewer recreational areas

Answer

(C) Decline in wild bee populations resulting in less pollination and decreased crop yields

Answer

(D) Destruction of wetland habitats for real estate resulting in decreased carbon sequestration

Question 9

14. Catalytic converters on automobiles use chemical reactions to convert pollutants from exhaust into less harmful substances. For a catalytic converter to function optimally when regular gasoline is used, a ratio of 14.7 air to 1 fuel is needed However, certain kinds of fuel require different ratios. For example, E85, an ethanol fuel blend, requires 34% more fuel to balance the reaction. What is the approximate optimal ratio of air to E85 fuel?

Accepted Answer

(C) 10.97 to 1

Answer

(A) 0.09 to 1

Answer

(B) 1.34 to 1

Answer

(D) 14.7 to 1

Question 10

15. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of the phosphorous cycle?

Accepted Answer

(A) Precipitation returning atmospheric phosphorous to land and water

Answer

(B) Geological uplift pushing phosphorous-containing rock to the ocean surface

Answer

(C) Phosphorous from the soil and farming reaching the ocean via leaching and runoff

Answer

(D) Decomposers breaking down phosphorous-containing plant and animal matter into the soil

Question 11

16. What are the negative impacts of dams on ecosystems?

Accepted Answer

(C) I and III only

Answer

(A) I only

Answer

(B) III only

Answer

(D) I, II, and III

Question 12

17. Which of the following is NOT a possible cause/effect of increasing ocean temperatures?

Accepted Answer

(A) A significant increase in the ocean circulation that transports warm water to the North Atlantic

Answer

(B) Large reductions in the Greenland and West Antarctic ice sheets

Answer

(C) Accelerated global warming

Answer

(D) Decreases in upwelling

Question 13

19. Based on the information in the diagram above, where is it likely that Germany falls in the Demographic Transition Model?

Accepted Answer

(D) Postindustrial State (Phase IV)

Answer

(A) Preindustrial State (Phase I)

Answer

(B) Transitional State (Phase II)

Answer

(C) Industrial State (Phase III)

Question 14

20. Based on the information in the diagram above, which of the following was likely true about the US population in 2014?

Accepted Answer

(B) The total fertility rate was between 2 and 3.

Answer

(A) The total fertility rate was between 1 and 2.

Answer

(C) The total fertility rate was between 3 and 4.

Answer

(D) The total fertility rate was between 4 and 5.

Question 15

21. Smaller forest fires are beneficial to forests for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

Accepted Answer

(D) making burned matter available as a nutrient

Answer

(A) combustion of dried leaves or needles, which reduces the threat of large fires

Answer

(B) burning the crowns of trees

Answer

(C) germinating seeds of certain plant species

Question 16

22. The diagram below represents a phylogenetic tree of the evolution of even-toed ungulates (e.g., cattle, pigs, giraffes, camels, and deer). The most likely explanation for the branching pattern seen in the circled region is that

Accepted Answer

(C) speciation was influenced by environmental change

Answer

(A) environmental changes caused extinction

Answer

(B) inbreeding led to speciation

Answer

(D) only the best-adapted organisms survived from generation to generation

Question 17

23. Soils found in mid-latitude grasslands would be most accurately described as having

Accepted Answer

(B) a deep layer of humus and decayed plant material

Answer

(A) a high acid content with little organic matter

Answer

(C) a layer of permafrost right below the O-horizon

Answer

(D) a high content of iron oxides and very little moisture

Question 18

24. Which of the following can be found in the tropopause?

Accepted Answer

(A) The jet streams

Answer

(B) The ozone layer

Answer

(C) Aurora borealis and australis

Answer

(D) The gases responsible for the greenhouse effect

Question 19

25. Which of the following is the most common gas in the troposphere?

Accepted Answer

(B) Nitrogen

Answer

(A) Oxygen

Answer

(C) Water vapor

Answer

(D) Carbon dioxide

Question 20

26. According to the graph above, which of the following countries' ecological footprints lay below the world average biocapacity per person in 2003?

Accepted Answer

(C) China, Egypt, and Thailand

Answer

(A) Afghanistan, Sierra Leone, and South Africa

Answer

(B) United States, Australia, and the UK

Answer

(D) Brazil, Malaysia, and Japan

Question 21

28. The energy necessary to produce stratospheric ozone comes from which of the following?

Accepted Answer

(A) Sunlight

Answer

(B) Radioactive decay

Answer

(C) Magma

Answer

(D) Wind

Question 22

29. Which of the following processes does NOT occur within current catalytic converters?

Accepted Answer

(B) II only

Answer

(A) I only

Answer

(C) III only

Answer

(D) I and III

Question 23

30. During an El Nino-Southern Oscillation, weather events change in which of the following areas?

Accepted Answer

(A) The Pacific and Indian Oceans

Answer

(B) The Atlantic and Indian Oceans

Answer

(C) The Arctic Sea

Answer

(D) The Indian and Antarctic Oceans

Question 24

31. Coal, oil, and natural gas were all formed as a result of

Accepted Answer

(A) the decay of organic matter

Answer

(B) the movement of magma in volcanoes

Answer

(C) sedimentary rock turning into metamorphic rock

Answer

(D) the radioactive decay occurring inside the Earth

Question 25

32. Suppose that the ecological efficiency at each trophic level of a particular ecosystem is 20%. If the green plants of the ecosystem capture 100 units of energy, about _____ units of energy will be available to support herbivores, and about _____ units of energy will be available to support primary carnivores.

Accepted Answer

(D) 20, 4

Answer

(A) 120, 140

Answer

(B) 120, 240

Answer

(C) 20, 2

Question 26

34. Which of the following is a potential benefit of strip cropping?

Accepted Answer

(A) Minimizing runoff

Answer

(B) Providing shelter from wind erosion

Answer

(C) Lessening the damage of overgrazing

Answer

(D) Reducing the erosion caused by tillage

Question 27

35. A small farmer has purchased a new plot of land that she intends to cultivate using sustainable practices. The major issues she wishes to address on the plot include excessive wind erosion, low soil fertility after long-term monoculture, and soil loss due to runoff. Would using strip cropping help her address these issues?

Accepted Answer

(D) Yes, because strip cropping will slow runoff and improve soil fertility.

Answer

(A) Yes, because strip cropping protects against wind erosion.

Answer

(B) No, because strip cropping is mainly used to slow soil erosion.

Answer

(C) No, because strip cropping will damage the soil fertility further.

Question 28

36.  In a particular habitat, owls eat mice and mice eat grass. If the owl population suddenly grows, then most likely

Accepted Answer

(A) the number of mice will decrease and the amount of grass will increase.

Answer

(B) the number of mice will decrease and the amount of grass will not change.

Answer

(C) the number of mice will increase and the amount of grass will increase.

Answer

(D) the number of mice will increase and the amount of grass will not change.

Question 29

37.  If 50,000 kJ of energy is available to the primary producers in an ecosystem, how much will be available to the tertiary consumers?

Accepted Answer

(C) 50 kJ

Answer

(A) 5,000 kJ

Answer

(B) 500 kJ

Answer

(D) 5 kJ

Question 30

38. The population is growing at its highest rate at which letter?

Accepted Answer

(C) B

Answer

(A) A

Answer

(B) D

Answer

(D) C

Question 31

39. Which of the following phrases best describes line K in the graph above?

Accepted Answer

(B) The carrying capacity of the environment

Answer

(A) The rate of population growth

Answer

(C) The time it takes for the population to double in size

Answer

(D) The birth rate of the population

Question 32

40. The best label for the axis labeled 2 in the graph above is

Accepted Answer

(A) time

Answer

(B) population number

Answer

(C) logistic growth rate

Answer

(D) environmental resistance

Question 33

41. A farmer stops farming a certain tract of land, and small bushes soon grow there. The land then progresses to the deciduous tree stage. This process is known as

Accepted Answer

(C) secondary succession

Answer

(A) pioneer succession

Answer

(B) wetland succession

Answer

(D) primary succession

Question 34

42. According to the diagram, low species diversity and small-sized plants are characteristics of which stage of succession?

Accepted Answer

(C) III only

Answer

(A) I only

Answer

(B) II only

Answer

(D) I and III only

Question 35

43. Which of the following best illustrates the process of evolution

Accepted Answer

(A) A parasite population becomes resistant to a drug

Answer

(B) Rabbits can have brown fur in summer and white fur in winter

Answer

(C) Frogs burrow deep into the mud during winter

Answer

(D) A baby is born and has a different color hair than his or her parents

Question 36

44. Which of the following is true of primary and secondary pollutants?

Accepted Answer

(C) Secondary pollutants are formed from primary pollutants interacting in the atmosphere.

Answer

(A) Primary pollutants rise up the smokestack before secondary pollutants are formed.

Answer

(B) Primary pollutants are formed from secondary pollutants interacting in the water.

Answer

(D) Secondary pollutants are directly created by the burning of coal and primary pollutants from the burning of oil.

Question 37

46. All of the following are negative impacts of food production EXCEPT

Accepted Answer

(D) lower death rates

Answer

(A) increased erosion

Answer

(B) air pollution from fossil fuels

Answer

(C) bioaccumulation of pesticides

Question 38

47. All of the following are useful methods for reducing domestic water use EXCEPT

Accepted Answer

(D) lowering the temperature of the water heater

Answer

(A) using low-flow shower heads

Answer

(B) using low-flush-volume toilets

Answer

(C) fixing leaks as soon as they start

Question 39

48. Which statement about human population growth is LEAST likely to be correct?

Accepted Answer

(B) Technological advances in farming and medicine will allow human populations to continue to grow without natural limits.

Answer

(A) Modern medicine has allowed human populations to extend well past the earth's carrying capacity, as more people survive for longer.

Answer

(C) Advances in agriculture have allowed the world's food supply to expand dramatically in the last 100 years.

Answer

(D) Worldwide, humans are reproducing more quickly than mortality is removing people from the population.

Question 40

49. Students studying a river found high levels of fecal coliform bacteria. They concluded that

Accepted Answer

(D) untreated animal waste was put into the water

Answer

(A) this water is fit to swim in

Answer

(B) a nearby treatment plant added chlorine to the waste water

Answer

(C) they can safely drink the water

Question 41

50. Which of the following pairs correctly matches the source of gray water with its most frequent use in the home?

Accepted Answer

(C) Dishwasher and sink water used to irrigate garden plants

Answer

(A) Dishwasher and sink water used to flush toilets

Answer

(B) Flushed toilet water used to irrigate garden plants

Answer

(D) Water collected from rainfall used to flush toilets

Question 42

51. The Clean Water Act did all of the following EXCEPT

Accepted Answer

(C) demand that an environmental impact statement be prepared for any major development

Answer

(A) set water quality standards for all contaminants in surface waters

Answer

(B) make it unlawful for any person to discharge any pollutant from a point source into navigable waters

Answer

(D) fund the construction of sewage treatment plants

Question 43

52. The survivorship curve for the tree species above is an example of a Type III curve. Which of the following species would show a similar curve?

Accepted Answer

(D) Oysters

Answer

(A) Moose

Answer

(B) Songbirds

Answer

(C) Sea turtles

Question 44

53. Which of the following is an accurate description of a Type II curve?

Accepted Answer

(B) Roughly constant survival probability regardless of age

Answer

(A) High survival probability in early and middle life, followed by a rapid decline in later life

Answer

(C) High mortality in early life, followed by relatively high survival probability for those surviving the bottleneck

Answer

(D) Relatively high survival probability in early and late life, with a bottleneck of high mortality in the middle of the lifespan

Question 45

54. The phrase that best defines population density is

Accepted Answer

(A) the number of individuals in a certain geographic area

Answer

(B) the rate at which a population increases

Answer

(C) the maximum number of individuals that a habitat can sustain

Answer

(D) the time it takes for a population to increase to carrying capacity

Question 46

55. Which type of irrigation results in the greatest amount of water lost to evaporation and runoff?

Accepted Answer

(C) Furrow irrigation

Answer

(A) Flood irrigation

Answer

(B) Drip irrigation

Answer

(D) Spray irrigation

Question 47

56. Winds are primarily caused by

Accepted Answer

(A) differences in air pressure

Answer

(B) the Coriolis effect

Answer

(C) ocean currents

Answer

(D) Earth's rotation on its axis

Question 48

57. How does the great ocean conveyor belt moderate Earth's climate?

Accepted Answer

(B) II only

Answer

(A) I only

Answer

(C) III only

Answer

(D) I and II

Question 49

60. Which of the following is NOT an effect of the presence of this "dead zone"?

Accepted Answer

(D) Mass migration of fish to other areas of the Gulf

Answer

(A) Collapse of the shrimp and shellfish industries in the area

Answer

(B) Nothing that depends on oxygen can grow in the zone from May to September

Answer

(C) Reproductive problems in fish involving decreased size of reproductive organs, low egg counts, and lack of spawning

Question 50

Which of the following biomes is best characterized as an area that forms the narrow band along the coast that experiences a range of environmental conditions (including daily changes in sunlight, temperature, and water)?

Accepted Answer

(A) Intertidal zones

Answer

(B) Open ocean

Answer

(C) Lakes

Answer

(D) Coral reefs

Question 51

62. The shrinking of the Aral Sea and the ecological disaster that followed was mainly caused by

Accepted Answer

(A) the diversion of the sea's two feeder rivers for agricultural use

Answer

(B) withdrawing groundwater from the area

Answer

(C) a major earthquake that hit the region

Answer

(D) the massive use of pesticides

Question 52

63. Which of the following would NOT be a chemical property of a persistent organic pollutant such as DDT?

Accepted Answer

(A) I only

Answer

(B) II only

Answer

(C) III only

Answer

(D) I and II

Question 53

64. Today, most of the world's energy comes from

Accepted Answer

(A) natural gas, coal, and oil

Answer

(B) natural gas, hydroelectric, and oil

Answer

(C) hydroelectric, solar, and biomass

Answer

(D) coal, oil, and nuclear

Question 54

65. Which of the following is an example of a regulating service?

Accepted Answer

(A) In New York City, authorities worked to restore the polluted Catskill Watershed, restoring soil absorption and filtration of chemicals via soil and its microbiota, improving water quality.

Answer

(B) Restoration of wild bee populations to an area relieves large-scale farms from having to import non-native honeybees to pollinate crops.

Answer

(C) In the Roman Empire, water-powered mills produced flour from grain, and were also utilized for power to saw timber and cut stone.

Answer

(D) In modern ecotherapy, patients are encouraged to spend time in nature to enhance their physical, mental, and emotional well-being.

Question 55

66. All of the following are negative consequences to humans of the disruption of ecosystem services EXCEPT

Accepted Answer

(D) greater availability of habitats in different stages of ecological succession for scientific study due to human development

Answer

(A) lower crop yields due to depletion of soil nutrients and microbiota

Answer

(B) outbreaks of diseases carried by insect vectors due to habitat loss in predator species

Answer

(C) higher costs of mining due to depletion of mineral resources

Question 56

67. Which of the following greenhouse gases is NOT a significant contributor to global climate change?

Accepted Answer

(C) Water vapor

Answer

(A) CFCs

Answer

(B) Methane

Answer

(D) Carbon dioxide

Question 57

68. The enhanced, or anthropogenic, greenhouse effect refers to a strengthening of the greenhouse effect due to human activities that are contributing to global climate change. Which of the following is NOT true of this anthropogenic effect?

Accepted Answer

(A) Depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer is a contributing factor.

Answer

(B) It is mainly due to increases in emissions of greenhouse gases and pollutants, as well as to changes in land use.

Answer

(C) Some of its effects include sea level rise, changes in ocean properties, and an increase in extreme weather events.

Answer

(D) Possible effects on the biosphere include changes in biomes, mass migrations and extinctions, spread of disease vectors, and changes in population dynamics.

Question 58

69. Global warming potential (GWP) is a measure of how much heat a greenhouse gas can trap in the atmosphere, relative to the reference point of carbon dioxide. Which of the following greenhouse gases has the highest GWP?

Accepted Answer

(A) Chlorofluorocarbons

Answer

(B) Nitrous oxide

Answer

(C) Carbon dioxide

Answer

(D) Methane

Question 59

70. The graph below represents possible depletion curves of a nonrenewable resource. Curve C best describes the resource as it

Accepted Answer

(D) has expanding reserves and consumption is reduced

Answer

(A) has just been discovered and no technology exists to use the resource

Answer

(B) is quickly used up and is not recycled

Answer

(C) is newly discovered and in high demand

Question 60

71. Which of the following is a negative result of overfishing a particular species of edible fish?

Accepted Answer

(D) I, II, and III

Answer

(A) II only

Answer

(B) I and II only

Answer

(C) II and III only

Question 61

72. The water table is at the

Accepted Answer

(A) top of the zone of saturation

Answer

(B) bottom of the zone of saturation

Answer

(C) top of the zone of aeration

Answer

(D) bottom of the zone of aeration

Question 62

73. In a country with 75 out of 1,000 people being added to the population through births and immigration and 50 out of 1,000 people leaving the population through death and emigration,what is the growth rate of this country?

Accepted Answer

(C) 2.5 percent

Answer

(A) 1.8 percent

Answer

(B) 2.9 percent

Answer

(D) 3.4 percent

Question 63

74. The concept of net-primary productivity

Accepted Answer

(D) is usually reported as the energy output of an area of producers over a given time period

Answer

(A) is the rate at which producers manufacture chemical energy through photosynthesis

Answer

(B) is the rate at which producers use chemical energy through respiration

Answer

(C) is the rate of photosynthesis plus the rate of respiration

Question 64

75. Which of the following is NOT a phenomenon associated with La Nina?

Accepted Answer

(B) Wetter-than-normal conditions across the Pacific Northwest

Accepted Answer

(E) Substantial decrease in the number of hurricanes

Answer

(A) Unusually cold ocean temperatures in the eastern equatorial Pacific

Answer

(C) Drier and warmer-than-normal conditions in the southern states

Answer

(D) Warmer-than-normal winter temperatures in the southeastern United States

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