Quiz about PPL Stage 1

Question 1

Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?

Accepted Answer

V(A)

Answer

V(LO)

Answer

V(NE)

Question 2

At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?

Accepted Answer

18,000 feet MSL

Answer

14,500 feet MSL

Answer

24,000 feet MSL

Question 3

If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?

Accepted Answer

The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator

Answer

The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator

Answer

The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator

Question 4

Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?

Accepted Answer

Airspeed

Answer

Altimeter.

Answer

Vertical speed

Question 5

What is density altitude?

Accepted Answer

The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature

Answer

The height above the standard datum plane

Answer

The altitude read directly from the altimeter

Question 6

What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

Accepted Answer

Never-exceed speed

Answer

Maneuvering speed

Answer

Turbulent or rough-air speed

Question 7

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the

Accepted Answer

magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force

Answer

presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass

Answer

difference in the location between true north and magnetic north

Question 8

With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?

Accepted Answer

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air

Answer

Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon

Answer

Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea

Question 9

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

Accepted Answer

Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements

Answer

Commercial Pilot Certificate

Answer

Private Pilot Certificate with an Instrument Rating

Question 10

With respect to the certification of airmen, which are classes of aircraft?

Accepted Answer

Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea

Answer

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.

Answer

Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon

Question 11

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

Accepted Answer

Normal, utility, acrobatic

Answer

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider

Answer

Landplane, seaplane

Question 12

What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot-in-command of an aircraft?

Accepted Answer

An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required

Answer

Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current flight review

Answer

A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.

Question 13

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?

Accepted Answer

The elevation of the departure area

Answer

The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level

Answer

Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature

Question 14

Before a person holding a Private Pilot Certificate may act as pilot-in-command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have

Accepted Answer

received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook

Answer

passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector

Answer

an endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot-in-command

Question 15

To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding

Accepted Answer

24 calendar months

Answer

6 calendar months

Answer

12 calendar months

Question 16

When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

Accepted Answer

When it will compromise safety

Answer

Only when the tower operator concurs.

Answer

Pilots can not decline clearance

Question 17

Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?

Accepted Answer

V(X)

Answer

V(Y)

Answer

V(A)

Question 18

V(SO) is defined as the

Accepted Answer

stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration

Answer

stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration

Answer

stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed

Question 19

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?

Accepted Answer

Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport

Answer

Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary

Answer

Make all turns to the left

Question 20

when taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?

Accepted Answer

Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing

Answer

Aileron down on the downwind side

Answer

Ailerons neutral

Question 21

Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should

Accepted Answer

visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

Answer

check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications

Answer

announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF

Question 22

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?

Accepted Answer

An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower

Answer

An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller

Answer

An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots

Question 23

Most midair collision accidents occur during

Accepted Answer

clear days

Answer

hazy days

Answer

cloudy nights

Question 24

What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?

Accepted Answer

Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing

Answer

Look only at far away, dim lights

Answer

Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds

Question 25

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

Accepted Answer

blue omnidirectional lights

Answer

white directional lights

Answer

alternate red and green lights

Question 26

A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is

Accepted Answer

three white lights and one red light

Answer

four white lights

Answer

two white lights and two red lights

Question 27

Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program?

Accepted Answer

Student pilots

Answer

Recreational pilots only

Answer

Military pilots

Question 28

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

Accepted Answer

There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

Answer

The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate

Answer

The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space

Question 29

What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?

Accepted Answer

It reduces climb performance.

Answer

It increases engine performance

Answer

It increases takeoff performance

Question 30

Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from

Accepted Answer

1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL

Answer

700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL

Answer

the surface up to and including 18,000 feet MSL

Question 31

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,

Accepted Answer

18,000 feet MSL

Answer

10,000 feet MSL

Answer

14,500 feet MSL

Question 32

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least

Accepted Answer

1,000 feet and 3 miles

Answer

1,000 feet and 1 mile.

Answer

2,500 feet and 3 miles

Question 33

A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?

Accepted Answer

Class D

Answer

Class B

Answer

Class C

Question 34

Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only

Accepted Answer

when the associated control tower is in operation

Answer

when the weather minimums are below basic VFR

Answer

when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation

Question 35

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

Accepted Answer

Class C

Answer

Class E

Answer

Class G

Question 36

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

Accepted Answer

Class A

Answer

Class C

Answer

Class B

Question 37

What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?

Accepted Answer

Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.

Answer

Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.

Answer

High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

Question 38

A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot

Accepted Answer

is cleared to land

Answer

should give way to other aircraft and continue circling

Answer

should return for landing

Question 39

If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be

Accepted Answer

steady red

Answer

flashing red

Answer

alternating red and green

Question 40

When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if re-chargeable?

Accepted Answer

When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.

Answer

After any inadvertent activation of the ELT

Answer

When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver

Question 41

When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?

Accepted Answer

1200

Answer

7600

Answer

7700

Question 42

After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?

Accepted Answer

When advised by the tower to do so

Answer

Prior to turning off the runway

Answer

After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area

Question 43

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with

Accepted Answer

too much power and with the mixture set too lean

Answer

the mixture set too rich

Answer

higher-than-normal oil pressure

Question 44

If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be

Accepted Answer

loss of RPM

Answer

increase of RPM

Answer

engine roughness

Question 45

During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?

Accepted Answer

The pilot-in-command

Answer

The owner or operator

Answer

the certificated mechanic who performed the annual inspection

Question 46

The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to

Accepted Answer

immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed

Answer

quickly check the fuel supply for possible fuel exhaustion

Answer

determine the wind direction to plan for the forced landing

Question 47

An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would

Accepted Answer

probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment

Answer

experience avionics equipment failure

Answer

probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current.

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